Answering an Objection (1 Timothy 2:4)

          Does God desire the salvation of every single person in the world,
     or has He chosen or elected "for Himself a people that are His very own?"

          The passage in 1 Timothy 2:4-6, is used by some as evidence that God
    wants everyone to be saved, and that Jesus died as a ransom for every
    person who has ever lived.

          I believe this is an incorrect interpretation of the text, and will demonstrate
     the reasons for my belief.

                        
                                                         ***************

         
          Context is the key to understanding this passage.

          Paul is writing a letter to Timothy, his younger "brother in Christ."

                                               " 1. I urge, then, first of all, that requests,
                                                  prayers, intercession and thanksgivings
                                                  be made on behalf of all men,

                                                 2. for kings and all who are in authority,         
                                                 so that we may lead a tranquil and quiet
                                                 life in all godliness and dignity.

                                                 3. This is good and acceptable in the sight
                                                 of God our Savior,

                                                 4. who desires all men to be saved and to
                                                 come to the knowledge of the truth.

                                                 5. For there is one God, and one mediator
                                                 also between God and men, the man Christ
                                                 Jesus,

                                                 6. who gave Himself as a ransom for all,
                                                 the testimony given at the proper time."
                                                                                 1 Timothy 2:1-6


      
            The following is a summary from The Potter's Freedom, by James White.

                        "The first appearance of the phrase 'all men' comes at the end
                          of verse 1, and its meaning is unambiguous.  Paul is not
                          instructing Timothy to initiate never-ending prayer meetings
                          where the Ephesian phone book would be opened and every
                          single person listed therein would become the object of prayer.
                          The very next phrase of the sentence explains Paul's meaning"

                                   'for kings and all who are in authority.'

                          We must remember that the early Christians were a persecuted
                           people, and normally the persecution came from those in
                           positions of power and authority.  It is easy to understand why
                           there would have to be apostolic commandments given to pray
                           for the very ones who were using their power and authority to
                           persecute these Christians.

                          Kings and all who are in authority are kinds of men, classes of
                          men.  Paul often spoke of 'all men' in this fashion.  For example
                          in Titus 2, when Paul speaks of the grace of God which brings
                          salvation appearing to 'all men' (Titus 2:11), he clearly means
                          all kinds of men, for the context, both before and after, speaks
                          of kinds of men.

                          (In Titus 2:13-14, we see that Jesus gave Himself for a certain group
                           of people):


                                                  ' ... our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,
                                                    who gave Himself for us to redeem us from
                                                    all lawlessness and to purify for Himself a
                                                    people for His own possession who are
                                                    zealous for good works.'
                          
                                                   

                          In the previous verses Paul addresses such groups as older men
                          (v.2), older women (v.3), younger women (v.4), young men (v.6),
                          bondslaves (v. 9-10), and ruler and authorities (3:1).  Obviously,
                          Paul is not speaking of every single older man, older woman, etc.;
                          he speaks of kinds of people within a particular group, that being
                          the fellowship of the church.  Likewise, 'rulers' and 'authorities'
                          are obviously generic classifications of people."


                OTHER SIMILAR PASSAGES

                White continues:

                         "The same kind of usage (all kinds of men being in view) is found
                           elsewhere in Titus 3:2:


                                               'to malign no one, to be peaceable,
                                                gentle, showing every consideration
                                                for all men.'

                           This phrase is used in a way that cannot be made universal in scope:

                                              
                                               'For you will be a witness for Him
                                                to all men of what you have seen
                                                and heard.'
                                                                       Acts 22:15


                           Of course, Paul would not think that these words meant that he
                           would witness of Christ to every single individual human being
                           on the planet.  Instead, he would have surely understood this to
                           mean all kinds and races of men.


                          Likewise, the allegation against Paul was that he preached
                                         'to all men everywhere' against the Jews and the
                          Law and the Temple '(Acts 21:28).


                         Paul speaks of kinds of people in other places as well:

                  
                                              ' ... A renewal in which there is no distinction
                                              between Greek and Jew, circumcised and
                                              uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave
                                              and freeman, but Christ is all, and in all.'
                                                                          Colossians 3:11


                        Also Galatians 3:28:


                                             'There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is
                                              neither slave nor free man, there is neither
                                              male nor female, for you are all one in
                                              Christ Jesus.'
          

                       So it is perfectly consistent with the immediate and broader
                       context of Paul's writings to recognize this use of 'all men'
                       in a generic fashion.


                   BACK TO 1 TIMOTHY 2

                   "If we are consistent with the context we will see 'all men'
                    here in verse 4, in the same manner as 'all men' of the
                    preceding verses:  all kinds of men, whether rulers or kings
                    (yes, God even saves people who used to persecute Christians,
                    a fact Paul knew all too well).

    
                    Verse 5 in 1 Timothy chapter 2, begins with the word 'for,'
                    indicating the connection between the statement made in 3-4
                    and the explanation in 5-6.

                    Why should Christians pray that all men, including kings and
                    rulers, be saved and come to a knowledge of the truth?
                    Because there is only one way of salvation, and without a
                    knowledge of that truth, no man can  be saved.

                    Paul say, 'there is one God, and one mediator between God and
                    men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave Himself as a ransom for all.'

                   Two points:

                                1. If one takes 'all men' in verse 4 to mean 'all men individually,'
                                   does it not follow that Christ of necessity must be mediator
                                   for all men as well?
                                   If one says, 'Yes, Christ mediates for every
                                   single human being,' does it not follow that Christ fails as
                                   mediator every time a person negates His work by his all-powerful
                                   act of free will?

                                   It is far more consistent with biblical theology to recognize that
                                   Christ mediates in behalf of the elect and perfectly saves them
                                   than it is to assert that Christ mediates for all (but fails to save all).

                                2. The ransom that Christ gives in His self-sacrifice is either a
                                    saving ransom or a non-saving one. 
  
                                    If it is actual and really made in behalf of all men, then inevitably
                                    all men would be saved.

                                   But we again see that it is far more consistent to recognize that the
                                   same meaning for 'all men' and 'all' flows throughout the entire
                                   passage, and when we look at the inarguably clear statements of
                                   Scripture regarding the actual intention and result of Christ's
                                   cross-work, we will see that there is no other consistent means
                                   of interpreting these words in 1 Timothy.

                                                              ****************

                                  (The word 'all' in verses one and six, means 'all kinds of men.'
                                    If 'all men' means every person in the world, then we have
                                    Universalism, which is certainly unbiblical),
                                    and we are again
                                    left with the assertion that God's grace, God's purpose, and
                                    God's love are set at naught (nothingness) by the almighty
                                    will of the fallen creature."

                                    Hopefully, no biblical scholar would ever promote such an idea!